Pondicherry UDC Exam 2023 solved question paper

  1. Identify the other name for Macro Economics
    (A) Price Theory
    (B) Income Theory
    (C) Market Theory
    (D) Micro Theory
  1. Which of the following statements are correct about Self Help Groups (SHG)?
    i. The SHGs promote thrift in small proportions by a minimum contribution from each member.
    ii. From the pooled money, credit is given to the needy members to be repayable in small instalments at high interest rates
    iii. SHGs have helped In the empowerment of women.
    iv. Such credit provisions are generally referred to as micro-credit programmes.
    (A) i, ii, iii and iv
    (B) ii, iii, .and iv
    (C) ii and iv
    (D) i, iii and iv
  1. Which of the following rivers does not flow into the Arabian Sea?
    (A) Tungabhadra
    (B) Sabarmati
    (C) Mandovi
    (D) Narmada

4. Match the following:

I. Pangong Tso lakei. Mizoram
II. Balpakram National Parkii. Assam
III. Orang National Parkiii. Meghalaya
IV. Palak Dillakeiv. Eastern Ladakh

A) I -iv, II-iii, III-ii, IV-i
(B) I-iv, II-iii, III -i, IV-ii
(C) I-iii , II-ii, III-i, IV-iv
(D) I-ii, II-i, III-iv, IV-iii

  1. The study of inscriptions is called
    (A) Epigraphy
    (B) Cartography
    (C) Calligraphy
    (D) Archaeology
  1. Two identical conducting balls having positive charges q1, and q2 are separated by a centre to centre distance r. If they are made to touch each other and then separated to the same distance, the force between them will be
    (A) less than before
    (B) same as before
    (C) more than before
    (D) zero
  1. In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at 220 V. It is supplied at 110 V in USA.
    If the resistance of a 60W bulb for use in India is R, the resistance of a 60W bulb for use in USA will be
    (A) R
    (B) 2R
    (C) R/4
    (D) R/2
  1. The line integral of magnetic field over a closed loop is μ0 times net current enclosed by the loop. It is called
    (A) Gauss’s law
    (B) Ampere’s circuital law
    (C) Tangent Law
    (D) Maxwell Law
  1. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to economic reforms in India?
    i. Outsourcing is emerging as a major activity in industrial and service sectors.
    ii. During the reforms, growth of agriculture and industry has gone down but the service sector has registered growth.
    iii. Reforms have benefited the agriculture sector. There has also been an increase in public investment in this sector.
    iv. Industrial sector growth has slowed down due to availability of cheaper imports and lower investment.
    (A) i, ii, iii and iv
    (B) ii, iii and iv
    (C) i, ii and iv
    (D) i , iii and iv
  1. Which of the following is a direct tax?
    (A) Excise duty
    (B) Income tax
    (C) Customs duty
    (D) Service tax

Pondicherry LDC Exam 2012 Question paper & Answer key

Pondicherry LDC Exam 2012 solved question paper

1) The material used for electrical fuse wire should have
(A) high resistivity
(B) low resistivity
(C) low melting point
(D) high melting point

2) Siladitya was the title of
(A) Ashoka
(B) Bimbisara
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Harshavardhana

3) The state/union territory of India which has larger female population than male population as per 2011 Census is
(A) West Bengal
(B) Mizoram
(C) Nagaland
(D) Puducherry

4) Rama was facing East. He walked 4 km forward, then turned to his right and walked 3 km. Again he turned to his right and walked 4 km. Then he turned back. Which direction Rama is facing now?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South

5) Whose birthday has been celebrated as National Mathematics Day in India
(A) Srinivasa Ramanujam
(B) C.V. Raman
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) H.C. Bose

6) The Theosophical Society was first established in
(A) New York
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Chennai

7) The largest gland in the human body is
(A) Adrenal gland
(B) Pituitary gland
(C) Liver
(D) Thyroid gland

8) Which Article of the Indian Constitution was called by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar ao tho ‘Heart and Soul of the Constitution’?
(A) 32
(B) 17
(C) 19
(D) 15

9) Which Article of Indian Constitution deals with the procedure for Amendment of Indian Constitution?
(A) 369
(B) 370
(C) 368
(D) 371

10) An air bubble in water acts like a
(A) Convex mirror
(B) Convex lens
(C) Concave mirror
(D) Concave lens

11) How many letters of the English alphabet (Capitals) appear same when looked at in a mirror?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12

12) In the context of the Indian defence, what is Dhruv?
(A) Aircraft-carrying ship
(B) Missile-carrying submarine
(C) Advanced light Helicopter
(D) Intercontinental ballistic missile

13) While lifting a bucket of water from a well, we feel that the bucket
(A) Becomes lighter above the surface of water
(B) Becomes heavier above the surface of water
(C) Loses density on coming out of the water
(D) Has gained mass on coming out of the water

14) The flying of birds is a proof of Newton’s
(A) First Law
(B) Second Law
(C) Third Law
(D) Both Second and Third laws

15) In a doctor’s stethoscope, the sound is intensified because of
(A) Resonance of sound
(B) Constructive interference
(C) Principle of superposition of waves
(D) Reflection of sound

16) When the earth reaches its perihelion,
(A) It is nearest to the moon
(B) It is nearest to the sun
(C) It is farthest from the moon
(D) It is farthest from the sun

17) Which state has the largest- areas under tank irrigation?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Orissa
(C) West Bengal
(D) Karnataka

18) Which one of the following rivers does not originate in India?
(A) Beas
(B) Cheenab
(C) Ravi
(D) Sutlej

19) In India how many states share the coast line?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10

20) It ——not look like a great deal today, but back then it was a coup: no man before —– to import tea directly into Europe.
The option that will best fill in the blanks in the above sentences would be :
(A) may, has dared
(B) may, had dared
(C) might, has dared
(D) might, have dared

21) Who was appointed as the Chief Economic Advisor in the Ministry of Finance?
(A) C. Rangarajan
(B) Raghuram Rajan
(C) Mukul Roy
(D) Ajay Maken

22) Which sports person has announced that he will not contest against US Antidoping Agency charges of doping?
(A) Carl Lewis
(B) Lance Armstrong
(C) George Hincapie
(D) Bradley Wiggins

23) Name the captain of India’s Under-19 team under whose captaincy India won the U-19 Cricket World Cup 2012
(A) Prashant Chopra
(B) Akshdeep Nath
(C) Virat Kohli
(D) Unmukt Chand

24) Who was assigned the task of partitioning India in 1947?
(A) Allen Octayian Hume
(B) Lord Lytton
(C) Sir Cyril Radcliffe
(D) Lord Mountbatten

25) Inflation occurs when aggregate supply is
(A) more than aggregate demand
(B) less than aggregate demand
(C) equal to aggregate demand
(D) none of the above

Way to success UDC 2022 Strategy Approach

Approach for UDC 2022 Exam with comparison to UDC 2015 & 2012 Exam

Sl. NoSubjectMajor


No. of Qns in


No. of Qns in 2015Expected in


Subject wise Total 2022
1HistoryMedieval465 15
4ScienceChemistry523 13
8General Knowledge8111212
9Current Affairs12131313
Grand Total100100100

Detailed analysis (cont..) in page 2

Pondicherry UDC Exam 2023 Model Question paper

Pondicherry UDC Exam 2023 most expected Questions..

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Pondicherry UDC Exam 2015 solved question paper

Pondicherry UDC Exam 2015 solved question paper

1. An incandescent lamp is operated at 240 V and the current is 0.5 A. What is the resistance of the lamp?
(A) 120 Ω      (B) 480 Ω        (C) 340 Ω       (D) 240.5 Ω

2. ‘The magnitude of emf induced in a closed circuit is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the circuit’. This law is
(A)    Faradays first law of electromagnetic induction
(B)    Faradays second law of electromagnetic induction
(C)    Lenz’s law
(D)    Flemings right hand rule

3. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(A)    Neutrons are neutral particles with no charge
(B)    The mass of the neutron is slightly greater than that of protons
(C)    Neutrons are stable inside the nucleus and unstable outside the nucleus
(D)    As neutrons are neutral they cannot penetrate any nucleus

4. Match the Chinese Pilgrims with the events connected to them and select the correct answers from the options given :
(i)    Fa-Hien             (a)  Stayed at Nalanda for ten years studying and translating Buddhist
texts and returned to China with a collection of 400 Sanskrit manuscripts
(ii)   Hieuen Tsang   (b)  Came to India via Central Asia; only interested in Buddhism and his
report does not contain much political information
(iii) I-tsing                 (c)  Left India with 20 horses loaded with 657 Buddhist texts and 150 relics
and spent his life in studying and translating Buddhist texts
Options :
(A)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c)
(B)    (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b)
(C)    (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a)
(D)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a)

5. Match the Awards with its winners :
(i) Saraswati Samman                                       (a) Sania Mirza
(ii) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna  Award               (b) Bhalchandra Nemade
(iii) Sangitha Kalanithi Award                          (c)  M. Veerapa Moily
(iv) Jnanpita Award                                          (d)  Sanjay  Subramaniyam
Options :
(A)    (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
(B)    (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
(C)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(D)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)

6. Match the following which were in news recently
(i) IGAD – Plus             (a) A scheme for online release of New LPG connection to consumers
(ii) Mosquirix               (b) A zero Carbon planned city in Abu Dhabi .
(iii) Masdar                   (c) First licensed human vaccine against malarial
(iv) SAHAJ                   (d) Agreement on the resolution of conflict in the Republic of Sudan
Options :
(A)    (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(B)    (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
(C)    (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(D)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)

7. Match the following types of graft or transplantation :
(i) Autograft          (a)  Graft between Syngeneic individuals
(ii) Isograft            (b)  Tissue of the original donor is grafted back into the same donor
(iii) Homograft       (c)  Graft between allogenic individual
Options :
(A)    (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b)
(B)    (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a)
(C)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c)
(D)    (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c)

8. Which one of the following is correct?
(A)  Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic syndrome caused by an autosomal mutant allele Haemoglobin
(B)  Agammaglobulinemia is an erythroblastic anaemia due to homozygous recessive gene expression in children
(C)  Thalassemia is a recessive gene disease where in r-globulin synthesis fails to occur
(D) None of the above

9. The Indian Constitution has borrowed certain provisions from the constitution of other countries. Match the provisions borrowed from other countries.
(i)  The Institution of speaker and his role                                     (a)  Irish Constitution
(ii)  Power of Judicial review and independence of judiciary      (b)  British Constitution
(iii) The idea of  Residual Powers                                                   (c)  United States Constitution
(iv) Directive Principles of State Policy                                          (d) Canadian Constitution
Options :
(A)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(B)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(c); (iii)-(d); (iv)-(a)
(C)    (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(D)    (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)

10. Which provision of the constitution explicitly clarifies that a policy like reservation will not be seen as a violation of Right to Equality?
(A)    Article 16 (1)
(B)    Article 16 (2)
(C)    Article 16 (3)
(D)    Article 16 (4)

11. Dr. Ambedkar considered one of the following as “heart and soul of the constitution”. Identify the same.
(A)    Right to Equality
(B)    Right against Exploitation
(C)    Right to Constitutional Remedy
(D)    Right to Freedom of Religion

12. Identify which of the following is not true about Pradhan Mantri Suraksa Bhima Yojna
(A)    Persons upto 60 years are eligible under this scheme
(B)    Provides Insurance coverage for Rs. 2 lakh for one year against accidental death
(C)    Rs. 12/- is the annual premium directly auto debited by the bank from the Subscriber’s account
(D)    It is mandatory to have a Bank account in this scheme

13.    Match the books and its authors :
(i)    Ethics for New Millennium          (a) Kuldip Nayar
(ii)  Between the lines                          (b) Vikram Seth
(iii) Power Politics                                 (c) Dalai lama
(iv) An Equal music                              (d) Arundhati Roy
Options :
(A)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(a)
(B)    (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(C)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(D)    (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)

14.    Name the awards, which is conferred annually in the United States for the accomplishments in journalism,literature and music
(A)    Magsaysay award
(B)    Pulitzer prize
(C)    Man Booker Prize
(D)    Right livelihood award

15.    Match the following :
(i)   Carrying capacity / of the environment      (a) That meets the need of the present generation without
compromising the ability of the future generation to
meet their own needs.
(ii) Absorptive capacity / of the environment   (b) Implies that the resource environment extraction is
not above the rate of regeneration of the resource and
the waste generated are within the assimilating
capacity of the environment
(iii) Sustainable development                              (c)  Means the ability of the environment to absorb
Options :
(A)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a)
(B)    (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b)
(C)    (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a)
(D)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c)

16. Match the following and choose the correct options:
(i) Union List                  (a) Trade and commerce
(ii) State List                   (b) Cyber Laws
(iii) Concurrent List      (c) Foreign Trade
(iv) Residuary Power     (d) Trade Unions
Options :
(A)    (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
(B)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(a)
(C)    (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(D)    (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)

17 Choose the statement Which is not True from the following :
(A) The Constitution provides for reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(B) The number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are in proportion to their share in the population of India
(C) The Delimitation Commission is appointed by President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
(D) The Delimitation Commission picks constituencies spread in different regions of the states and reserve them for Scheduled Tribes even if the number of Scheduled Tribes population are minimum in them.

18. Match the following passes with their locations and choose the correct options.
(i)Zoji La                   (a) Zaskar
(ii)Banihal                (b) Great Himalayas
(iii)Photu La            (c) Ladakh
(iv)Khardung La     (d) Pir Panjal
Options :
(A) (i)-(b), (ii)—(d), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(a)
(B) (i)—(c), (ii)—(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(C) (i)—(d), (ii)—(c), (iii)—(b), (iv)-(a)
(D) (i)—(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)

19. Identify the Biosphere Reserves recognized by the UNESCO
(A) Nilgiri, Nokrek, Sunderbans and Gulf of Mannar
(B) Nilgiri, Nanda Devi,Sunderbans and Gulf of Mannar
(C) Agasthyamalai, Nanda Devi, Sunderbans and Gulf of Mannar
(D) Nilgiris, Nanda Devi, Sunderbans and Pachmari

20. Which one of the following statement on the initial conditions for the emergence of Tropical Cyclone is not true?
(a) Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous latent heat is essential
(B) Absence of Coriolis force near the equator stimulates the formation of tropical cyclone between 0°-5° latitude
(C) Unstable condition through the troposphere that creates local disturbance around which a cyclone develops
(D) Absence of strong verticals wind wedge which disturbs the vertical transport of latent heat

Pondicherry Co-operative Junior Inspector 2006 Solved Paper

Pondicherry Co-operative Junior Inspector 2006 Solved Paper

1.    Financial statements generally mean
(A)   balance sheet                                  (B)    P & L account
(C)   balance sheet & P & L account      (D)    none

2.    Audit is an instrument of safeguard on behalf of
(A)   the Government     (B)    the proprietor
(C)   the creditor              (D)    the employees

3.    Auditing starts where
(A)   book-keeping ends  (B)    accountancy ends
(C)   inspection ends         (D)    enquiry ends

4.    The company audit report is sent to
(A)   the Government                (B) the creditor
(C)   the Board of Directors       (D) the shareholders

5.    Investigation is carried out on behalf of
(A)   the proprietors only      (B)    outsiders only
(C)   both                                 (D)    none

6.    The C & AG is appointed by
(A)   The Prime Minister                (B) The President
(C)   The Parliament                       (D) Shareholders

7.    Audit note book is maintained by
(A)   the auditor                   (B) the audit clerk
(C)   the Proprietors            (D) Creditors

8.    Working papers contain facts about
(A)   employees                   (B)    share holders
(C)   evidences                    (D)    accounts

9.    Test checking means
(A)   routine checking        (B)    sampling checking
(C)   complete checking     (D)    annual checking

10.   Audit programme is a plan of action for
(A)   the auditor and his clerks         (B)    the employees of the client
(C)   the client                                      (D)    the Board of Directors

11.   ABC is a control over
(A)   Finance    (B)    Closing Stock    (C)    Raw materials      (D)    Opening stock

12.   Internal audit is a work done by
(A)   the employees of the client
(B)   audit clerk of the auditor
(C)   employees of an independent agency
(D)   combined work of employees of the client and the audit clerks of the auditor

13.   Statutory audit is conducted
(A)   as a continuous audit
(B)   after the preparation of final accounts
(C)   before the preparation of final accounts
(D)   in between two annual audits

14.   Vouching
(A)   testing the truth of items appearing in the books of original entry
(B)   inspection of trading transactions
(C)   testing of contracts
(D)   verification of assets

15.   Lapping
(A)   internal auditing              (B) test checking
(C)   complete checking           (D) teaming and lading

16.   Teaming and lading
(A)   suppressing the records
(B)   forgery
(C)   shortage of raw materials
(D)   concealment of a shortage by delaying the recording of cash receipts

17. Piece rate system
(A) sales commission             (B) salary
(C) wages                                 (D) commission on profit

18. Outstanding rent account
(A) personal account               (B) real account
(C) a liability account              (D) a nominal account

19.   Sale on return basis is treated as
(A)   sales                        (B) goods with customers
(C)   sales return           (D) purchase return

20.   Journal
(A)   a book of prime entry
(B)   bills book
(C)   entries of debit and credit
(D)   a book with entries which cannot be passed through any other book of prime entry

21.   Bought ledger contains
(A)   the creditors account            (B) purchases
(C)   purchase returns                  (D) debtors account

22.   Audit of impersonal ledger
(A)   audit of sales ledger             (B) audit of bought ledger
(C)   audit of general ledger         (D) audit of debtors ledger

23.   Verification
(A)   proving the truth                 (B) checking the stock
(C)   verifying the records           (D) verifying the cash book

24.   Stock valuation
(A)   Cost price
(B)   Market price
(C)   Cost price or market price whichever is less
(D)   None

25.   Goodwill
(A)   tangible asset             (B) intangible asset
(C)   real asset                    (D) depleting asset

26.   Valuation of fixed assets
(A)   Cost price                                     (B) Market price
(C)   Cost price less depreciation       (D) Market price less depreciation

27.   Reserve is a profit set aside for
(A)   known liability
(B)   unknown liability
(C)   for a future asset
(D)   any unknown or known or contingent liability or decrease in the value of an asset

28.   General reserve is created out of
(A)   capital profit                                            (B) revenue profit
(C)   both capital and revenue profit GR     (D) cash receipts

29.   Sinking fund
(A)   a specific reserve          (B) a general reserve
(C)   a contingent reserve    (D) a pre-reserve

30.   First auditors of a company are appointed by
(A)   Share holders              (B) Government
(C)   Board of Directors       (D) Promoters of the company

31.   Income received in advance is
(A)   an asset             (B) a liability
(C)   an expense        (D) none of the above

32.   Purchase + Opening stock – Closing stock is
(A)   Sales                                (B) Equity
(C)   Cost of goods sold           (D) Loss

33.   A bill drawn and accepted without any consideration is called
(A)   Discounted bill            (B) Accommodation bill
(C)   Dishonoured bill          (D) None of the above

34.   Any revenue expense, for which a separate fund is available will be
(A)   Credited to the separate fund
(B)   Debited to the separate fund
(C)   Capitalised
(D)   Debited to income and expenditure account

35.   Any donation received for a specific purpose is a
(A)   Revenue receipt    (B) Nominal receipt
(C)   Capital receipt        (D) None of the above

36.   Consignee’s account is a
(A)   Personal account        (B) Real account
(C)   Nominal account        (D) None of these

37.   Del Credere Commission is calculated on
(A)   Cash sales                 (B) Credit sales
(C)   Total sales                (D) None of the above

38.   Joint venture account is an example of
(A)   Personal account       (B) Real account
(C)   Nominal account        (D) None of the above

39.   Depreciation is the process of
(A)   allocation of cost                       (B) valuation of liability
(C)   creating a secret reserve         (D) none of the above

40.   Profit prior to incorporation is an example of
(A)   Revenue reserve      (B) Capital reserve
(C)   Secret reserve           (D) None of the above

41.   Rent is apportioned to different departments on the basis of
(A)   Floor area        (B) Efficiency
(C)   Profit                (D) None of the above

42.   Under debtors system, branch account is a _________ account
(A)   Personal account      (B) Real account
(C)   Nominal account       (D) None of the above

43.   The lessee’s right to recover the shortworkings is related to
(A)   first five years                      (B)  first three years
(C)   terms of the agreement       (D) last three years

44.   Under  hire  purchase  system,  the  buyer  becomes  the  owner  of goods  after  the
(A)   receipt of goods                              (B) down payment
(C)   payment of first instalment          (D) payment of last instalment

45.   Under the net worth method of single entry system, the basis for ascertaining the profit is
(A)    the difference between the capital on two dates
(B)    the difference between gross assets on two dates
(C)    the difference between liabilities on two dates
(D)    none of the above

46.    Salaries of partners are debited to
(A)   Trading account                                         (B) Profit & Loss account
(C)   Profit & Loss appropriation account        (D) None of the above

47.    The balance to the credit of retiring partners’ capital account, not paid in cash, must be transferred to
(A)   Partners’ capital account           (B) Partners’ loan account
(C)   Partners’ current account          (D) None of the above

48.    On the dissolution of partnership, profit or loss on realisation should be divided
(A)   equally among the partners            (B) on the basis of profit sharing ratio
(C)   on capital ratio                                   (D) none of the above

49.    In the case of sale to a company, the profit or loss of a firm is ascertained through
(A)   Revaluation account                                (B) Realisation account
(C)   Memorandum revaluation account       (D) None of the above

50.    Shares can be forfeited for
(A)   non-payment of call money    (B) failure to attend meetings
(C)   failure to repay bank loan       (D) none of the above