Category Archives: Competitive Exam

Pondicherry Co-operative Junior Inspector 2006 Solved Paper

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Pondicherry Co-operative Junior Inspector 2006 Solved Paper

1.    Financial statements generally mean
(A)   balance sheet                                  (B)    P & L account
(C)   balance sheet & P & L account      (D)    none

2.    Audit is an instrument of safeguard on behalf of
(A)   the Government     (B)    the proprietor
(C)   the creditor              (D)    the employees

3.    Auditing starts where
(A)   book-keeping ends  (B)    accountancy ends
(C)   inspection ends         (D)    enquiry ends

4.    The company audit report is sent to
(A)   the Government                (B) the creditor
(C)   the Board of Directors       (D) the shareholders

5.    Investigation is carried out on behalf of
(A)   the proprietors only      (B)    outsiders only
(C)   both                                 (D)    none

6.    The C & AG is appointed by
(A)   The Prime Minister                (B) The President
(C)   The Parliament                       (D) Shareholders

7.    Audit note book is maintained by
(A)   the auditor                   (B) the audit clerk
(C)   the Proprietors            (D) Creditors

8.    Working papers contain facts about
(A)   employees                   (B)    share holders
(C)   evidences                    (D)    accounts

9.    Test checking means
(A)   routine checking        (B)    sampling checking
(C)   complete checking     (D)    annual checking

10.   Audit programme is a plan of action for
(A)   the auditor and his clerks         (B)    the employees of the client
(C)   the client                                      (D)    the Board of Directors

11.   ABC is a control over
(A)   Finance    (B)    Closing Stock    (C)    Raw materials      (D)    Opening stock

12.   Internal audit is a work done by
(A)   the employees of the client
(B)   audit clerk of the auditor
(C)   employees of an independent agency
(D)   combined work of employees of the client and the audit clerks of the auditor

13.   Statutory audit is conducted
(A)   as a continuous audit
(B)   after the preparation of final accounts
(C)   before the preparation of final accounts
(D)   in between two annual audits

14.   Vouching
(A)   testing the truth of items appearing in the books of original entry
(B)   inspection of trading transactions
(C)   testing of contracts
(D)   verification of assets

15.   Lapping
(A)   internal auditing              (B) test checking
(C)   complete checking           (D) teaming and lading

16.   Teaming and lading
(A)   suppressing the records
(B)   forgery
(C)   shortage of raw materials
(D)   concealment of a shortage by delaying the recording of cash receipts

17. Piece rate system
(A) sales commission             (B) salary
(C) wages                                 (D) commission on profit

18. Outstanding rent account
(A) personal account               (B) real account
(C) a liability account              (D) a nominal account

19.   Sale on return basis is treated as
(A)   sales                        (B) goods with customers
(C)   sales return           (D) purchase return

20.   Journal
(A)   a book of prime entry
(B)   bills book
(C)   entries of debit and credit
(D)   a book with entries which cannot be passed through any other book of prime entry

21.   Bought ledger contains
(A)   the creditors account            (B) purchases
(C)   purchase returns                  (D) debtors account

22.   Audit of impersonal ledger
(A)   audit of sales ledger             (B) audit of bought ledger
(C)   audit of general ledger         (D) audit of debtors ledger

23.   Verification
(A)   proving the truth                 (B) checking the stock
(C)   verifying the records           (D) verifying the cash book

24.   Stock valuation
(A)   Cost price
(B)   Market price
(C)   Cost price or market price whichever is less
(D)   None

25.   Goodwill
(A)   tangible asset             (B) intangible asset
(C)   real asset                    (D) depleting asset

26.   Valuation of fixed assets
(A)   Cost price                                     (B) Market price
(C)   Cost price less depreciation       (D) Market price less depreciation

27.   Reserve is a profit set aside for
(A)   known liability
(B)   unknown liability
(C)   for a future asset
(D)   any unknown or known or contingent liability or decrease in the value of an asset

28.   General reserve is created out of
(A)   capital profit                                            (B) revenue profit
(C)   both capital and revenue profit GR     (D) cash receipts

29.   Sinking fund
(A)   a specific reserve          (B) a general reserve
(C)   a contingent reserve    (D) a pre-reserve

30.   First auditors of a company are appointed by
(A)   Share holders              (B) Government
(C)   Board of Directors       (D) Promoters of the company

31.   Income received in advance is
(A)   an asset             (B) a liability
(C)   an expense        (D) none of the above

32.   Purchase + Opening stock – Closing stock is
(A)   Sales                                (B) Equity
(C)   Cost of goods sold           (D) Loss

33.   A bill drawn and accepted without any consideration is called
(A)   Discounted bill            (B) Accommodation bill
(C)   Dishonoured bill          (D) None of the above

34.   Any revenue expense, for which a separate fund is available will be
(A)   Credited to the separate fund
(B)   Debited to the separate fund
(C)   Capitalised
(D)   Debited to income and expenditure account

35.   Any donation received for a specific purpose is a
(A)   Revenue receipt    (B) Nominal receipt
(C)   Capital receipt        (D) None of the above

36.   Consignee’s account is a
(A)   Personal account        (B) Real account
(C)   Nominal account        (D) None of these

37.   Del Credere Commission is calculated on
(A)   Cash sales                 (B) Credit sales
(C)   Total sales                (D) None of the above

38.   Joint venture account is an example of
(A)   Personal account       (B) Real account
(C)   Nominal account        (D) None of the above

39.   Depreciation is the process of
(A)   allocation of cost                       (B) valuation of liability
(C)   creating a secret reserve         (D) none of the above

40.   Profit prior to incorporation is an example of
(A)   Revenue reserve      (B) Capital reserve
(C)   Secret reserve           (D) None of the above

41.   Rent is apportioned to different departments on the basis of
(A)   Floor area        (B) Efficiency
(C)   Profit                (D) None of the above

42.   Under debtors system, branch account is a _________ account
(A)   Personal account      (B) Real account
(C)   Nominal account       (D) None of the above

43.   The lessee’s right to recover the shortworkings is related to
(A)   first five years                      (B)  first three years
(C)   terms of the agreement       (D) last three years

44.   Under  hire  purchase  system,  the  buyer  becomes  the  owner  of goods  after  the
(A)   receipt of goods                              (B) down payment
(C)   payment of first instalment          (D) payment of last instalment

45.   Under the net worth method of single entry system, the basis for ascertaining the profit is
(A)    the difference between the capital on two dates
(B)    the difference between gross assets on two dates
(C)    the difference between liabilities on two dates
(D)    none of the above

46.    Salaries of partners are debited to
(A)   Trading account                                         (B) Profit & Loss account
(C)   Profit & Loss appropriation account        (D) None of the above

47.    The balance to the credit of retiring partners’ capital account, not paid in cash, must be transferred to
(A)   Partners’ capital account           (B) Partners’ loan account
(C)   Partners’ current account          (D) None of the above

48.    On the dissolution of partnership, profit or loss on realisation should be divided
(A)   equally among the partners            (B) on the basis of profit sharing ratio
(C)   on capital ratio                                   (D) none of the above

49.    In the case of sale to a company, the profit or loss of a firm is ascertained through
(A)   Revaluation account                                (B) Realisation account
(C)   Memorandum revaluation account       (D) None of the above

50.    Shares can be forfeited for
(A)   non-payment of call money    (B) failure to attend meetings
(C)   failure to repay bank loan       (D) none of the above

Pages: 1 2

Pondicherry VAO 2014 Solved Question Paper

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Pondicherry VAO 2014 Solved Question paper

1. A circle of l m radius is drawn inside a square as shown in figure given below. What is the area of the shaded portionvao2014a. 4 – Π               b. 1 – Π /2
c. 1/4 – Π/4       d. 1 – Π/4

2. 25 /11 – 25/22 / 7/161 + 3/18
a. 162/30            b. 162/25
c. 40/161            d. 25/161

3. For which of the following expressions would the value be greater if 160 were replaced by 120?
a. 1000 – 160
b. 160/(1+1/160)
c. 1/(1-1/160)
d. both a and c

4. What is the positive difference between the number of distinct prime factors of 152 and the number of distinct factors of 643
a. 1        b. 3         c. 5        d. 4

5. The arithmetic mean of a set of four numbers is 8.75. when a fifth number is introduced to the set, the mean of the set becomes 8. What is the fifth number
a. 8.375         b. 8.6
c. 10.3           d. 5

6. If the average of 27 -x, x-8 and 3x+ 11 is y, what is the average of 2y and 2y/3
a. 4x + 40
b. (4x + 40)/3
c. (8x + 80)/3
d. (2x+20)/3

7. If increasing 20 by P percent gives the same result as decreasing 60 by P percent, what is P percent of 70?
a. 45         b. 35
c. 60        d. 50

8. If xaxb= 1 and x ≠ ±1, a + b
a) x         b) -1          c) 0           d) 1

9. If 5n > 10,000 and n is an integer what is the smallest possible value of n
a. 5          b. 6
c. 9          d. 10

10. What is the length of a leg of isosceles right triangle with hypotenuse of 8 inches
a. 2√2 b. 4
c. 4√2 d. 8

11. The length of each side of square A is increased by 100% to make square B. If the length of the side of square B is increased by 50% to make square C, by what % is the area of square C greater than the sum of the areas of squares A and B?
a. 90%          b. 80%
c. 70%          d. 150%

12. If an arc with length of 12 Π is 3/4th of the circumference of a circle, what is the shortest distance between the endpoints the arc?
a. 4         b. 4√2
c. 8         d. 8√2

13. A chemist has 10 litres of a solution that is 10% nitric acid by volume. He wants to dilute the solution to 4% strength by adding water. How many litres of water he must add
a. 15         b. l8
c. 20        d. 25

14. In covering a distance of 30km, x takes 2 hours more than y. If x doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour less than y. x’s speed is
a. 7.5kmph        b. 6.25kmph
c. 6kmph           d. 5kmph

15. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36min and 45min respectively. A water pipe C can empty the tank in 30min. First A and B are opened, after 7min C is also opened. In how much time the tank will be full
a. 39min          b. 29min
c. 56min          d. None

16. The microcomputer, Intel MCS-80 is based on the widely used Intel
a. 8080 microprocessor
b. 8085 microprocessor
c. 8086 microprocessor
d. 4004 microprocessor

17. Which of the following terms describe 1024 kilobytes?
a. Kilobyte
b. Megabyte
c. Terabyte
d. Gigabyte

18. An internal storage consisting of arrays of small rings of magnetic material called ferrite is
a. Magnetic tape
b. Magnetic core
c. Magnetic disk
d. Optical mark reader

19. The fastest type of memory from the following list is
a. Tape
b. Semiconductor
c. Disk
d. Bubble memory

20. Which of the following printers, are you sure will not use if your objective is to print on multi carbon forms?
a. Daisy wheel
b. Dot-matrix
c. Laser
d. Thimble

21. Which language has been selected as the basis for the Japanese “fifth generation” computers
a. ALGOL            b. COBOL
c. PROLOG         d. C

22. MODULA is a
a. Programming language
b. Low level language
c. Assembly language
d. Machine language

23. Pixel is the short form of
a. Picture Element
b. Picture Excellent
c. Picture Light
d. Picture Limit

24. CTRL+V is the command to
a. Cut        b. Copy        c. Paste        d. Edit

25. ASCII stands for
a. American standard code for information interchange
b. All purpose scientific code for information interchange
c. American security code for information interchange
d. American Scientific code for information interchange

26. The Dutch captured and returned Puducherry to France by signing
a. The treaty of Ryswick in 1699
b. The treaty of Paris in 1763
c. The treaty of Paris in 1815
d. The treaty of Versailles in 1919

27. “Swatantram”, a tamil daily was started in the year
a. 1934         b. 1947
c. 1928         d. 1943

28. The last French commissaire in India was
a. Charles Francois Marie Baron
b. Charles Chambon
c. Andre Menard
d. Georges Escargueil

29. The pottery found in Arikanmedu was of origins
a. Roman          b. Greek
c. French          d. Egyptian

30. The French traveler who was the personal physician at the court of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb is
a. Francois Bernier
b. Jean-Baptiste Colbert
c. Cardinal Richelieu
d. Francois Caron

31. Kannagi Puratchi Kaapiyam was written by
a. Bharathiar
b. Bharathidasan
c. Prabanjan
d. Kalki

32. The list of coded instructions is called
a. Computer Program
b. Algorithm
c. Flowchart
d. Utility program

33. Which airlines on 19 Jan 2014 flew Boeing 777 plane powered by Bio-fuel?
a. Etihaad airways
b. British airways
c. US airways
d. Singapore airlines

34. In the Environment Performance Index (EPI) released on 25 January 2014 ranked out of 178 countries, India was ranked as
a. 140th          b. 155th
c. 135th          d. 170th

35. The “race of my life” is the autobiography of?
a. P.T. Usha
b. Shiny Abraham
c. Usain Bolt
d. Milkha singh

36. India has offered US $ 150 million of credit for project exports for establishing a special economic zone at Sittwe in?
a. Afghanistan
b. Myanmar
c. Sri Lanka
d. Nepal

37. Kerberos and Styx are the moons of?
a. Uranus
b. Neptune
c. Pluto
d. Jupiter

38. The early tsunami warning system was installed recently at Rangachang in
a. Daman & Diu
b. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
c. Lakshadweep
d. Pudhucherry

39. Reserve Bank of India uses reverse repo rate to?
a. Reduce the fiscal deficit
b. Increase liquidity of commercial banks
c. Increase liquidity in the market
d. Absorb liquidity from commercial banks

40. ‘Forint’ is the currency of which country
a. Suriname
b. Iceland
c. Hungary
d. Croatia

41. Who among the following archaeologists excavated the famous city of Mohenjo Daro?
a. Day a ram sahni
b. R.D. Bannerjee
c. M.S. Vats
d. Y.D. Sharma

42. Along which of these river did the Vedic civilization flourish
a. River Indus
b. River Gaggar
c. River Saraswati
d. River Tista

43. Which of the following Vedas deals with the procedure of sacrifices?
a. Yajur Veda
b. Rig Veda
c. Atharva Veda
d. Sama Veda

44. Name the source from which litmus solution is obtained
a. Base
b. Virus
c. Acid
d. Lichens

45. Factory wastes contains
a. Acids
b. Bases
c. Neutrals
d. None of the above

46. The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy minimum area is due to
a. Surface tension
b. Viscosity
c. Density
d. Vapour pressure

47. A hollow sphere of radius R, a hollow cube of side R and a thin circular plate of radius R , made up of same material are all heated to 20°C above room temperature. When left to cool in the room, which of them will reach the room temperature first
a. Circular Plate
b. Cube
c. Sphere
d. All of them will reach room temperature at time.

48. A black hole is a body in space which does not allow any radiation to come out. This property is due to its
a. Very small size
b. Very large size
c. Very high density
d. Very low density

49. When a mirror is rotated by an angle θ, the reflected ray will rotate by
a.) 0°          b.) θ/2
c.) θ            d.) 2θ

50. Which one of the following is paramagnetic nature?
a. Iron           b. Hydrogen
c Oxygen      d. Nitrogen

Pages: 1 2

Pondicherry UDC Exam 2015 – answer key

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Answer key for

The Post of Pondicherry Upper Division Clerk (UDC) 2015

Examination held on 25-10-2015

Qn .No
Series ‘A’
Series ‘B’
Series ‘C’
Series ‘D’
1
B
B
A
D
2
B
A
C
A
3
D
A
C
B
4
D
C
B
A
5
A
C
B
A
6
C
B
B
D
7
C
A
D
B
8
A
C
B
A
9
B
B
C
C
10
D
B
A
C
11
C
D
D
B
12
A
C
C
B
13
D
B
B
B
14
B
B
A
A
15
A
C
C
C
16
A
A
A
A
17
D
D
B
A
18
D
C
C
B
19
B
D
A
D
20
B
A
D
D
21
D
B
A
C
22
D
D
D
C
23
A
B
C
B
24
D
C
B
A
25
C
B
D
B
26
A
D
C
C
27
A
A
C
A
28
C
C
A
C
29
D
D
D
B
30
C
C
B
C
31
D
D
A
C
32
A
A
A
D
33
B
B
A
C
34
D
A
A
D
35
C
B
A
A
36
C
A
D
B
37
A
D
D
B
38
D
C
D
D
39
D
A
D
D
40
A
A
B
A
41
C
B
A
B
42
B
C
D
A
43
D
D
C
D
44
D
A
D
C
45
C
D
D
B
46
B
C
A
B
47
A
C
A
A
48
D
C
C
D
49
A
B
D
D
50
C
D
C
A
51
C
C
A
C
52
B
B
B
D
53
B
D
A
C
54
C
C
A
D
55
A
D
C
C
56
C
A
C
D
57
B
A
B
A
58
A
D
D
B
59
B
B
C
D
60
D
B
D
B
61
A
B
A
B
62
D
A
B
A
63
C
A
B
B
64
C
C
D
C
65
A
A
D
B
66
A
C
C
C
67
D
B
D
A
68
A
C
A
A
69
A
C
B
D
70
D
A
A
C
71
C
B
D
A
72
A
D
A
D
73
C
A
B
B
74
B
D
C
A
75
A
B
C
B
76
C
A
C
C
77
B
D
B
D
78
B
D
D
D
79
D
C
D
A
80
C
D
A
D
81
D
D
B
A
82
A
B
B
D
83
B
C
C
C
84
A
B
C
D
85
B
A
D
C
86
C
D
C
C
87
B
C
C
A
88
D
B
B
C
89
B
D
D
B
90
B
D
B
D
91
C
A
A
C
92
B
D
D
B
93
C
A
C
B
94
C
C
C
D
95
B
B
B
A
96
A
D
B
D
97
C
C
D
C
98
B
A
A
D
99
B
A
D
C
100
D
D
B
A

*********************************************ALL THE BEST******************************************

Way to Success UDC 2015 – Strategic Approach

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Approach for UDC 2015 Exam with comparison to UDC 2012 Exam

Sl. NoSubjectMajor

Division

No. of Qns in

2012

TotalExpected in

2015

Total
Ancient33
1HistoryMedieval4 144 15
Modern78
2Geography1210
3Polity1210
Physics34
4ScienceChemistry5 144 15
Biology67
5English1010
6Economics68
7Aptitude1010
8General Knowledge108
9Current Affairs1214
Grand Total100100

Detailed analysis (cont..) in page 2

Pages: 1 2

Strategy to Succeed UDC 2015

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Dear Aspirants,

                    How Easy or Difficult to get a post out of 500 posts for UDC ???

Basic overview

  • Till date there are 50000 members registered for the UDC 2015 examination.
  • Out of which lets assume, Serious preparation for the exam will be around 10,000 members maximum.

                   So what is the real Competition ???

  • To get a post what is the ratio ?

                Posts : Real competitors

500 : 10,000    

1 : 20      

  • So  to get a single post you have to compete with 20 members.
  • so getting a post is not that much tough if you are a serious contestant.

 

Basic Traits to Face the Exam

Physical & Mental ability

  • Since from starting preparation for the exam many aspirants least care about their physical strength and mainly concentrate on preparing notes, reading, solving problems etc..
  • always bear in mind Physical health is equally important to your mental health, if you are not physically sound you cannot concentrate on studies and difficult to recollect in the examination.

                         Tips for maintain health

– Drink water regularly when you are studying.

– Sleep well don’t strain your self in late nights.

– Refresh yourself by a walk for few minutes.

– Concentrate on variety of subject then focus on a particular subject for a long time.

Smart worker   Vs   Hard worker

  • Always be a smart worker than a hard worker, when a competition exam its is highly stated that a smart worker has more chance of winning than a hard worker.
  • Smart worker mainly chooses the relevant information for the exam an focus on it whereas hard workers go on studying everything and mess up in the examination.

Confidence

  • This is the foremost trait every aspirants should have in their minds. Yes “I will make success and get a post“.  Always tell your mind i am going on the right track and sure i  will make success.
  • Never bother about tough competition, make your mind free.
  • Never give up, some students start preparing seriously when the notification published but after a week or days they slowly gets lag by fear of vast syllabus and subjects.

what ever may be, confidence & never give-up policy will give you a fruitful result

Note: No person will solve all the 100 questions correctly, getting minimum 70 to 80 will sure get a chance to win the race

ALL THE BEST

Pondicherry UDC Exam 2012 Question paper & Answer key

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Pondicherry UDC Exam 2012 Question paper & Answer key

1. Match the following sites of Indus Valley civilization with their findings and select the correct answer from the options given
(i) Harappa         (a) Water reservoirs formed here may have been used to store water for agriculture
(ii) Chalhudaro  (b) Terracotta models of plough have been found here
(iii) Cholistan     (c) Almost exclusively devoted to craft production
(iv) Dholavira    (d) In the excavation made during mid 1980’s ornament  consisting three shell rings, a Jasper bead and hundreds of microbeads were found near the skull of a male
Options:
(A) (i) – d (ii) – a (iii) – b (iv) – c
(B) (i) – b (ii) – d (iii) – a (iv) – c
(C) (i) – d (ii) – c (iii) – b (iv) – a
(D) (i) – b (ii) – c (iii) – d (iv) – a

2. Which of the following is the busiest waterway in the world?
(A) Suez Canal Waterway
(B) North Pacific Waterway
(C) Panama Canal Waterway
(D) North Atlantic Waterway

3. Match the following rivers with the correct statements and select the answer from the options given.
(i) Kosi                 (a) Once known as the ‘Sorrow of Bengal’
(ii) Alaknanda    (b) Also known as the “Sorrow of Bihar”
(iii) Damodar     (c) Flows through the Rift Valley
(iv) Tapi            (d) Its tributary Mandakini is also called as Kali Ganga
Options:
(A) (i) – c (ii) – a (iii) – d (iv) – b
(B) (i) – b (ii) – d (iii) – a (iv) – c
(C) (i) – c (ii) – d (iii) – a (iv) – b
(D) (i) – b (ii) – a (iii) – d (iv) – c

4. The poison of a cobra affects which of the following first?
(A) Central nervous system
(B) Blood vessels and its linking
(C) Heart
(D) Brain

5. Pedology is the study of
(A) Soil
(B) Microbes
(C) Worms
(D) Fungus

6. Based on the amount of Yolk present the mammalian eggs are classified as one of the following type. Name it
(A) Microlecithal
(B) Mesolecithal
(C) Alecithal
(D) Macrolecithal

7. Excessive appetite leading to increased intake of food is known as
(A) Polyurea
(B) Polydipsia
(C) Polyphagia
(D) Polymorphia

8. Match the following alliviation programme of India with their aims.
(i) SJSRY               (a) Aims to generate wage employment for the poor unskilled people living in rural areas
(ii) SGSY                (b) Aims at creating employment opportunities both self employment and wage employment in urban areas
(iii) SGRY              (c) Aims at improving the food and nutritional status of the poor
(iv) ICDC              (d) The govt. provides partial financial assistance to Self Help Groups through banks
Options:
(A) (i) – d (ii) – b (iii) – a (iv) – c
(B) (i) – b (ii) – d (iii) – c (iv) – a
(C) (i) – d (ii) – c (iii) – b (iv) – a
(D) (i) – b (ii) – d (iii) – a (iv) – c

9. Which of the following statements are true with regard to Rashtriya Swasthya Bhima Yojna
(i) All employees of Public Sector and Private Sector establishments get these benefits
(ii) It is a Health Insurance Scheme
(iii) This scheme is for the benefit of unorganized workers
(iv) In India 7% of workers will get benefited
Options:
(A) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)

10. Which of the following are true of the Keshava Nand Bharati case-Select the correct answer from the options given?
(i) Upheld the 24th Amendment of the constitution
(ii) Gave back the Parliament the right to amend any part of the constitution including fundamental rights
(iii) Held that the parliament does not have any right to amend the fundamental rights
(iv) Held that the parliament does not have the right to amend the basic structure of the constitution
Options
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

11. The employees who are not included in the purview of the Administrative Tribunals include the following category.
(A) Employees of the Supreme Court and High courts
(B) Employees of the Secretariat of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Armed forces personnels
(D) All the above category

12. Identify the statement which is not true of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
(A) CAG is not represented by any Ministry
(B) CAG’s expenses are charged under the Consolidated Fund of India
(C) After a CAG ceases to hold his office, he is eligible for further office only under Govt. of lndia
(D) The CAG Audits the accounts related to Consolidated Fund of India and Public Accounts of India In both Central and State level

13. Which test is used to predict dengue fever?
(A) Dick Test
(B) Widal Test
(C) Tourniquet Test
(D) Elisa Test

14. Who of the following is regarded as the Architect of Indian Planning?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
(C) Amritya Sen
(D) Dhadabai Navarooji

15. Identify the correct match related to environment protection and select the correct answer from the options given below.
(i) Montreal protocol                         (a) Emphasises on protecting the future; the -present generation should bequeath a better environment to its future generation
(ii) Kyoto protocol                              (b) Banned the use of Chlorofloro carbon (CFC) compound and other ozone depleting chemical compounds known as halons
(iii) Brundtland commission             (c) Resulted in an International Agreement to fight global warming which called for reductions in emissions of greenhouse gases by industrialized nations.
Options:
(A) (i) – c (ii) – a (iii) – b
(B) (i) – b (ii) – c (iii) – a
(C) (i) – c (ii) – b (iii) – a
(D) (i) – b (ii) – a (iii) – c

16. Match the following with the words giving opposite meanmg and select the correct answer from the options.
(i) Enslave      (a) squander
(ii) Misfire      (b) emancipate
(iii) Hoard      (c) succeed
options:
(A) (i) – b (ii) – c (iii) – a
(B) (i) – a (ii) – c (iii) – b
(C) (i) – c (ii) – b (iii) – a
(D) (i) – c (ii) – a (iii) – b

17. Find out which one of the following explanation correctly matches the word given below.
Stationery
(A) Not moving or changing
(B) Paper and other writing materials
(C) A floor of a building
(D) A place where something IS located

18. Find out which one of the following explanation correctly matches the word given below:
Counseller
(A) A member of an administrative or advisory body of people
(B) A garment worth around the neck
C) A small entrance
(D) A person who gives guidance on personal and psychological problem

19. Match the following and select the correct matching from the options given.
(i) Ramanujacharya              (a) Advaita
(ii) Sankara                            (b) Dvaitadvaita
(iii) Madhvacharya               (c) Visishtadvita
(iv)Nimbarka                        (d) Dvaita
Options:
(A) (i) – c (ii) – a (iii) – b (iv) – d
(B) (i) – b (ii) – d (iii) – c (iv) – a
(C) (i) – b (ii) – a (iii) – c (iv) – d
(D) (i) – c (ii) – a (iii) – d (iv) – b

20. Which one of the following is not correct?
(A) Alberuni wrote                 Kitab-ul-Hind
(B) Ibin Battutah wrote         Taj-Ul-Masajid
(C) Firdausi wrote                  Shah Namah
(D) Amir Khusru wrote        Tughlaq Namah

21. The correct sequence of the dynasties that ruled the Vijayanagar Empire may be selected.
(A) Saluva, Sangama, Tuluva, Araveedu
(B) Sangama, Tuluva, Saluva, Araveedu
(C) Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva, Araveedu
(D) Tuluva, Saluva, Sangama, Araveedu

22. Match the following and select the correct answer from the options.
(i) Stratosphere           (a) This layer reflects radiowaves transmitted from the earth back to the earth
(ii) Mesosphere            (b) This layer is above the troposphere
(iii) Ionosphere            (c) Hydrogen and Helium predominates in this region
(iv) Exosphere             (d) Extends upto 80km and temperature decreases with the height
Options:
(A) (i) – c (ii) – a (iii) – d (iv) – b
(B) (i) – b (ii) – d (iii) – a (iv) – c
(C) (i) – d (ii) – c (iii) – b (iv) – a
(D) (i) – b (ii) – d (iii) – c (iv) – a

23. Which of the following are natural polymers? Choose the correct answer from the options.
(i) Glyptal
(ii) Silk
(iii) Protein
(iv) Bakellite
Options:
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) (iii) and (iv) are correct

24. The chemical formula of Marshals acid is
(A) H2S2O7
(B) H2SO3
(C) H2SO5
(D) H2S2O8

25. Which of the following is/are stable ?
(A) 2He3
(B)2He5
(C)2He4
(D) All are stable

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